Question
One person has stored some goods for the purpose of selling them if the price goes up. In this situation, someone asked him to lend him some money. Then he said, I don't have money but I have this goods. It was then agreed between them that he would take the goods instead of the money and later pay the price of the goods as the price at which his other stock would be sold. Is there any problem in such an agreement? 2521622545
Answer
- حامداومصلياومسلما، بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم -
It will not be permissible to buy or sell in the manner in question. Because at first the price was not specified. Secondly, it is unknown when the remaining goods will be sold and at what price. In order for the term sale to be valid in Shariah, the price of the product and the date of payment must be fixed at the time of the contract. The rest of the sale can be taken at a slightly higher price than cash. But it has to be determined. 7198131481
- والله اعلم باالصواب -
* This Fatwa was translated by Google Translate.
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Source
- মাজাল্লাতু আহকামিল আদলিয়াহ মাদ্দাহ, Page: 238
- শরহুল মাজাল্লাহ, খালিদ আতাসী, Part: 2, Page: 158
- আলমাদখালুল ফিকহিল আম, Part: 2, Page: 766
- বুহুস ফী কাযায়া ফিকহিয়্যাহ মুআছিরা, Part: 1, Page: 65
- আলওসীত ফিল কানুনিল মাদানী , Part: 4, Page: 325
- আলগারার ওয়া আছারুহু ফিলউকূদ, Page: 260
- রদ্দুল মুহতার, Part: 4, Page: 529
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